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New Updated CAPM Exam Questions 2021
NEW QUESTION 370
The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:
- A. stakeholder management strategy.
- B. communications management plan,
- C. performance report.
- D. stakeholder register,
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 371
Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?
- A. Resource calendar
- B. Scope baseline
- C. Cost baseline
- D. Trend analysis
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume B
Explanation:
A project budget includes all the funds authorized to execute the project. The cost baseline is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, but excludes management reserves.
7.3.3.1 Cost Baseline
The cost baseline is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves, which can only be changed through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results. It is developed as a summation of the approved budgets for the different schedule activities.
NEW QUESTION 372
Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?
- A. WBS dictionary
- B. Work performance measurements
- C. Project scope statement
- D. Requirements traceability matrix
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 373
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
- A. Benchmarking
- B. Quality control measurements
- C. Less rework
- D. Quality metrics
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 374
Which of the following tasks focuses on decomposing work packages?
- A. Define activities
- B. Complete rolling wave planning
- C. Adjust duration estimates
- D. Develop milestone list
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
NEW QUESTION 375
The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X.
The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?
- A. Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags
- B. Fast tracking and crashing
- C. Resource leveling and fast tracking
- D. Crashing and applying leads and lags
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
6.6.2.7 Schedule Compression
Schedule compression techniques are used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope, in order to meet schedule constraints, imposed dates, or other schedule objectives. Schedule compression techniques include, but are not limited to:
Crashing. A technique used to shorten the schedule duration for the least incremental cost by adding
resources. Examples of crashing include approving overtime, bringing in additional resources, or paying to expedite delivery to activities on the critical path. Crashing works only for activities on the critical path where additional resources will shorten the activity's duration. Crashing does not always produce a viable alternative and may result in increased risk and/or cost.
Fast tracking. A schedule compression technique in which activities or phases normally done in
sequence are performed in parallel for at least a portion of their duration. An example is constructing the foundation for a building before completing all of the architectural drawings. Fast tracking may result in rework and increased risk. Fast tracking only works if activities can be overlapped to shorten the project duration.
NEW QUESTION 376
Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?
- A. Create WBS
- B. Define Scope
- C. Collect Requirements
- D. Control Scope
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 377
A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:
- A. process
- B. program
- C. portfolio
- D. plan
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 378
The chart below is an example of a:
- A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
- B. RACI chart
- C. Requirements traceability matrix
- D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 379
As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost.
What should be used to calculate the forecast?
- A. BAC
- B. WBS
- C. EAC
- D. ETC
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 380
Which tools and techniques will a project manager use to develop a project charter?
- A. Lessons learned database, interpersonal and team skills, cost baseline, and meetings
- B. Expert judgment, data gathering, interpersonal and team skills, and meetings
- C. Project manager experience, expert judgment, scope statement, and meetings
- D. Expert judgment, data gathering, scope statement, schedule baseline, and meetings
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 381
What is the purpose of tailoring in project management?
- A. To select an appropriate team and its competencies for the project
- B. To let management know the project management will be done efficiency
- C. To select appropriate processes, tools & methodology for the project
- D. To ensure agile practices are embedded into project phases
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 382
The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:
- A. baseline.
- B. a control chart.
- C. Create WBS.
- D. decomposition.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
5.4.2.1 Decomposition
Decomposition is a technique used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts. The work package is the work defined at the lowest level of the WBS for which cost and duration can be estimated and managed. The level of decomposition is often guided by the degree of control needed to effectively manage the project. The level of detail for work packages will vary with the size and complexity of the project. Decomposition of the total project work into work packages generally involves the following activities:
Identifying and analyzing the deliverables and related work;
Structuring and organizing the WBS;
Decomposing the upper WBS levels into lower-level detailed components;
Developing and assigning identification codes to the WBS components; and
Verifying that the degree of decomposition of the deliverables is appropriate.
NEW QUESTION 383
A project manager needs to request outside support for a statement of work (SOW) that is not precise. Which kind of contract does the project manager need to create?
- A. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
- B. Cost plus award fee (CPAF)
- C. Fixed price
- D. Time and material (T&M)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
T&M contracts are often used for staff augmentation, acquisition of experts and any outside support when a precise statement of work is not quickly prescribed.
NEW QUESTION 384
Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?
- A. Customers or sponsors
- B. Subject matter experts
- C. Business partners
- D. Functional managers
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Change Control Board (CCB). A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions.
NEW QUESTION 385
The chart below is an example of a:
- A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
- B. RACI chart
- C. Requirements traceability matrix
- D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 386
Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Responses process?
- A. Risk urgency assessment
- B. Schedule management plan
- C. Risk register
- D. Organizational process assets
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume E
Explanation:
11.2.3.1 Risk Register
The primary output from Identify Risks is the initial entry into the risk register. The risk register is a document in which the results of risk analysis and risk response planning are recorded. It contains the outcomes of the other risk management processes as they are conducted, resulting in an increase in the level and type of information contained in the risk register over time. The preparation of the risk register begins in the Identify Risks process with the following information, and then becomes available to other project management and risk management processes:
List of identified risks. The identified risks are described in as much detail as is reasonable. A structure for
describing risks using risk statements may be applied, for example, EVENT may occur causing IMPACT, or If CAUSE exists, EVENT may occur leading to EFFECT. In addition to the list of identified risks, the root causes of those risks may become more evident. These are the fundamental conditions or events that may give rise to one or more identified risks. They should be recorded and used to support future risk identification for this and other projects.
List of potential responses. Potential responses to a risk may sometimes be identified during the Identify
Risks process. These responses, if identified in this process, should be used as inputs to the Plan Risk Responses process.
Process: 11.5 Plan Risk Responses
Definition: The process of developing options and actions to enhance opportunities and to reduce threats to project objectives.
Key Benefit: The key benefit of this process is that it addresses the risks by their priority, inserting resources and activities into the budget, schedule and project management plan as needed.
Inputs
1. Risk management plan
2. Risk register
Tools & Techniques
1. Strategies for negative risks or threats
2. Strategies for positive risks or opportunities
3. Contingent response strategies
4. Expert judgment
Outputs
1. Project management plan updates
2. Project documents updates
NEW QUESTION 387
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Preparing for CAPM Exam Using Study Guides
To guarantee success, candidates make use of several study guides when preparing for the final test. Overall, the exam structure requires knowledge of:
- Project management processes;
- Project and organization lifecycle;
- Human resource management;
- Time and cost management;
- Project Environment;
- Stakeholder management.
- Quality management;
- Communications management;
- Project scope management;
- Project integration management;
- Project risk management;
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